$Moderna, Inc.(MRNA)$ Hi everyone. Please forgive me if this question is simple but why is a share of Moderna or Biontech so much more expensive compared to their counterpart Pfizer? Biontech has a P/E of 64, Moderna has a P/E of 51 and Pfizer has a P/E of 19 so that explains the price differences on the surface but if like to understand why. Are Biontech and Moderna overvalued or Pfizer undervalued? Is there expectations for growth for the two companies but not Pfizer? I guess I'm looking for help in understanding the differences in the P/E in order to understand the stark differences in price. Thanks guys!
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